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[tdf-discuss] Re: Two questions about course of LO


Thank you, that gives a clearer picture.


Charles-H. Schulz wrote:

It is not accurate in the sense that in order to contribute to OpenOffice
developers should assign their copyright to Oracle, while there's no such
thing for LibreOffice. Since The Document Foundation has not submitted its
copyright (or the ones of its contributors) to Oracle, Oracle cannot get
our
contributions but we can get theirs. I don't know whether that makes LO
get
stronger while OOo stagnates, as I feel we have other reasons to explain
that pattern, but it could be a possible outcome of this situation.

This is true for two completely different reasons: 1) the code is complex
and was never made really easier for outside contributors to participate
2)Oracle had an habit of exercising tight control over patches and took
time
to integrate them. However that has changed in LibreOffice, see below.

Well this has already happened six months ago and is happening as we speak
:-) One of the greatest success of LibreOffice so far is to have
aggregated
the Novell/Suse developers, the Red Hat ones and the Ubuntu/Canonical
around
this project. But even they are only a tiny fraction of our developers'
community. Enthusiasm, as you wrote, and much more open development
process
have achieved what was never achieved in 10 years of OpenOffice.org: in 6
months we moved from around 15 developers to around 160 developers, not
counting the localizers.
I applaud this development. OO/LO are the only serious competitors to
Microsoft Office and I am sure that MO's price would be double or three
times what it is now if not for them. Microsoft's insistence on a secret
proprietary standard for their files is a disgrace and I do not understand
why the authorities in the U.S. and EU tolerate it.

That said, I wonder how the proportions break down when looked at not in
numbers of developers but in lines of code produced?

Also, I am having trouble wrapping my head around the notion of "copyright
assignment". While this is the law in the U.S., I thought that the EU
considers copyright "inalienable", so how can a European assign copyright
even if s/he wants to?

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